It would be badness adequate if diligence were disbursal its ain money to attempt to place specious ideas in the world mind, simply when industriousness is permitted to do it "for free," someone in a high place ought to stand up and holler. As I said, I'm not entirely sold on this analysis, because I think most people either use "disembarrass of" and "unblock from" interchangeably—except in the case of "dislodge of charge"—or arbitrarily prefer one or the other form to express the same idea, without having any finer distinctions in mind. If so, my analysis amounts to a rule in search of actual usage—a prescription rather than a description. In any event, the impressive rise of "rid of" against "resign from" over the past 100 years suggests that the English-speaking world has become more receptive to using "release of" in place of "liberate from" during that period. If I assume that you want to say the opposite of e.g. 'The popcorn is free of charge when you purchase a ticket', the opposite would be e.g. 'The popcorn comes at a cost', 'The popcorn isn't free', 'The popcorn cost $10', 'You have to pay for the popcorn' or, simply, 'The popcorn isn't free'. The statement, 'You can take your baby on the flight free of charge' would be in opposition to 'You have to pay to take your baby on a plane' or 'It's not free', or informally, 'You gotta pay for it'. To say something is not included (if, for example, popcorn weren't free of charge, even with ticket) one could say 'The popcorn is not included in the ticket price'. I don't know that we've come up with a precise answer to the question. An example sentence would be really useful to show what you want the opposite of.
Under the present system, Free-holders, House-keepers and Lease-holders are voters, whose property may be as little as $25 or a house 12 feet square. Now we confidently assert that any man who is incapable of obtaining a vote under these conditions, is unworthy of it. If he does not possess that much mental, moral and physical energy, his vote would degrade the candidate, the office, and , if possible, himself. He is unworthy the title of citizen, and should not participate in the government. Suppose, for an instance, that we gave every man who was free, white and 21 years of age, a right to vote--what would be the result?
The suffrages of the idle, indolent and ignorant would be as valuable, and in many cases counteract those of industrious, active, and learned. In South Carolina, as in other American States, the legislative power is vested in a general assembly, consisting of a senate and a house of representatives. To be qualified for this office, a person must be a free white man, 21 years of age; must have been an inhabitant of the state three years, and, if he reside in the district for which he is chosen, he must have a freehold clear of debt to the amount of 150 sterling. To be entitled to the privilege of voting for members of the legislative body, a person must be a free white man, 21 years of age, must have been an inhabitant of the state two years, and must have been, for six months preceding the election, possessed of a freehold of 50 acres of land, watch top porn videos or a lot in a town. This was usually how it showed up in the Hollywood movies of the 1930's. There were still black slaves in some states in the mid 1800s, so obviously being free and white was a meaningful part of "I privy do what I want and no ace toilet break me". But unless it refers to the "freedom" to vote, I don't know what the significance of reaching 21 would have been at the time. If you're referring to a product, it's probably more common simply to use a phrase such as "which mustiness be paid for". Otherwise, it is common to use a phrase such as "entrance fee excite applies", "national to payment" etc.
Search results for the period 2001–2008 alone yield hundreds of matches in all sorts of edited publications, including books from university presses. There is no denying that, seventy years ago, "for free" was not in widespread use in edited publications—and that it conveyed an informal and perhaps even unsavory tone. Such pasts are not irrelevant when you are trying to pitch your language at a certain level—and in some parts of the English-speaking world, "for free" may still strike many listeners or readers as outlandish. But in the United States the days when using "for free" marked you as a probable resident of Goat's Whiskers, Kentucky, are long gone. However, the original example (a naked myself used as an emphatic me) is considered by many (and I personally agree) to be poor style. So I'd generally suggest avoiding it unless you really do need the emphasis for some reason. And even then, you can get emphasis by using "me personally" or "me myself", which is much less unpleasant. Finally, my answer is based not only on the reference I cited but also on my 28 years of experience as a copy editor (and a reader of books on usage) and on my 45+ years as a close reader of literature and nonfiction.
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